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q as waw? - Printable Version +- The Voynich Ninja (https://www.voynich.ninja) +-- Forum: Voynich Research (https://www.voynich.ninja/forum-27.html) +--- Forum: Analysis of the text (https://www.voynich.ninja/forum-41.html) +--- Thread: q as waw? (/thread-777.html) |
RE: q as waw? - ThomasCoon - 26-09-2016 (26-09-2016, 03:37 PM)Koen Gh. wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.Thomas - In that case I would argue that the "o" in itself is an article or something similar. In that case the surface appearance of "4o" as a meaningful unit would just be the result of "and" and an article being stuck to the beginning of words. I guess this ties in to the "gallows mark nouns" hypothesis. Hi Koen, Thanks for the post - It's definitely a possibility (who knows! I certainly can't disprove anything ). One obstacle that I foresee may be explaining why "and" (<q>) can only link words that have a definite article (<o>). In many languages, "and" can connect nouns without definite articles also, as well as non-nouns (two verbs, adjectives, adverbs). Maybe Emma knows of a language where "and" is constrained in this way?
RE: q as waw? - Koen G - 26-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - -JKP- - 27-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - Sam G - 27-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - Koen G - 29-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - Ruby Novacna - 29-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - Koen G - 29-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - MarcoP - 30-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - Ruby Novacna - 30-09-2016 RE: q as waw? - MarcoP - 30-09-2016 |