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geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory - Printable Version +- The Voynich Ninja (https://www.voynich.ninja) +-- Forum: Voynich Research (https://www.voynich.ninja/forum-27.html) +--- Forum: Theories & Solutions (https://www.voynich.ninja/forum-58.html) +--- Thread: geoffreycaveney's Judaeo-Greek theory (/thread-2697.html) |
RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - geoffreycaveney - 16-03-2019 (16-03-2019, 11:17 AM)MarcoP wrote: You are not allowed to view links. Register or Login to view.The fourth step of Geoffrey's translation, where he tries to make sense of the set of Greek words that he picked as similar to his mapping of Voynichese, states that "eipan oun" means "as they said". I don't know Greek, so looking into his translation is about as difficult for me as working with Yokubinas' translation based on Hebrew. Marco, it is also possible that my interpretation of the last word of the line as "oun" is incorrect, but the rest of the line may still be correct. I am not wedded to the "oun". In a 15th century late medieval / Byzantine Greek text, especially if it is a Judaeo-Greek text, there are going to be some words that have not necessarily been previously attested in any surviving text. The Voynich ms was written literally within a few decades of the fall of Constantinople and the collapse of the Byzantine Empire. Do we have extensive documentation of *15th century* Byzantine Greek? I doubt it. And we must have even less documentation of 15th century Judaeo-Greek. Here is another possibility: Perhaps I was wrong about the first word "geio-pan" as well. Koen already pointed out a big problem with it. Well, perhaps the first letter, the Voynich gallows letter [t], is not an actual letter in the text at all, but just a "pilcrow" paragraph marker. JKP has pointed to this theory, as he mentioned in a recent comment on this forum. In this case, perhaps the first word is also intended to represent "eipan", "they said". Now I know we have the extraneous letter [o] in this case, but as I said, a Judaeo-Greek text written by a scribe whose literary background was the Hebrew script would not be expected to be very precise with the Greek vowels! [o] has kind of a strange distribution in the Voynich manuscript in any case; perhaps a large number of [o]'s in the ms are extraneous. It is just an idea. (The Greek masculine nominative singular definite article "o" could justify a substantial number of the initial [o]'s in the ms, but still, the number of initial [o]'s in the Voynich ms is rather extremely large. And the character [o] occurs in 58% of all word tokens in the entire ms. Perhaps it may signify something other than an actual letter in some instances.) If we take the first word as "eipan", then we have the first line as "eipan tis ipeirous otan skiiais tis eipan oun", if we maintain "oun". Now we may read the first six words as one clause, "they said when the continents are in the shadows," and the last two words as the beginning of the next clause, "then they said". This syntax would actually match your examples of "eipan oun" that you cited rather closely! Again, it is just another idea. RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - geoffreycaveney - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - Linda - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - geoffreycaveney - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - geoffreycaveney - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - MarcoP - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - geoffreycaveney - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - MarcoP - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - geoffreycaveney - 16-03-2019 RE: interesting Greek reading of 1st line of f67r 1 - -JKP- - 16-03-2019 |