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Why does Beinecke do this? - Printable Version +- The Voynich Ninja (https://www.voynich.ninja) +-- Forum: Voynich Research (https://www.voynich.ninja/forum-27.html) +--- Forum: Provenance & history (https://www.voynich.ninja/forum-44.html) +--- Thread: Why does Beinecke do this? (/thread-2053.html) |
Why does Beinecke do this? - Koen G - 17-08-2017 A post from Beinecke just appeared on my facebook feed, and I keep being surprised at the confidence with which they claim unverified or wrong things. Central Europe? Why? Why not Spain or Sicily or England for all I care? But okay, that's one thing, central Europe is a vague term. But why don't they update the date range? I thought we could be relatively certain about early 15th century? RE: Why does Beinecke do this? - davidjackson - 17-08-2017 RE: Why does Beinecke do this? - -JKP- - 17-08-2017 RE: Why does Beinecke do this? - Anton - 17-08-2017 |