23-10-2019, 01:32 AM
@ Helmut Winkler
We're getting closer, but it's still not exactly what I mean.
Assuming that pure Latin was a spoken language in the 400th century, there must also be Latin dialects. Same as in Italy, France, Germany.
How far has this spoken Latin changed in dialect since 400 to 1400, and how much of another language must be present before one can speak of another language? If it can be assumed that at that time the writing was exactly the same as the speaking, then diversity becomes the real problem.
We're getting closer, but it's still not exactly what I mean.
Assuming that pure Latin was a spoken language in the 400th century, there must also be Latin dialects. Same as in Italy, France, Germany.
How far has this spoken Latin changed in dialect since 400 to 1400, and how much of another language must be present before one can speak of another language? If it can be assumed that at that time the writing was exactly the same as the speaking, then diversity becomes the real problem.