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Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence?
#6
Mary D'Imperio gave this chart at the end of her 1978 work:

[Image: attachment.php?aid=650]

I've often wondered if the things that Job mentioned appear in the manuscript: maybe [in] = "um" and [iin] = "unt", so that the result is Latin. But this is only a passing idea - nothing that I have researched Smile


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Messages In This Thread
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by -Job- - 19-02-2016, 05:31 AM
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by -Job- - 20-02-2016, 04:14 AM
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by ThomasCoon - 23-09-2016, 02:33 PM
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by -JKP- - 23-09-2016, 06:02 PM

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