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Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence?
#8
JKP,

I agree on both counts. While trying to save money on paper (which wasn't so cheap in the Middle Ages), scribes needed to save space, which led to a whole complicated system of abbreviations as you mention. And since nobody spoke Latin as a native language (but every scribe spoke it as a second language) the Latin abbreviations could drift into German or Italian or French texts.... thus complicating the situation, if the language does turn out to be a European language Big Grin
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Messages In This Thread
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by -Job- - 19-02-2016, 05:31 AM
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by -Job- - 20-02-2016, 04:14 AM
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by -JKP- - 23-09-2016, 06:02 PM
RE: Proof for [i] and [n] equivalence? - by ThomasCoon - 24-09-2016, 02:34 AM

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