[split] Does Voynichese evolve from A to B?

[npcompl33t]

Finding a simple set of systematic re-spelling rules that explains the differences could make "spelling reform" more likely.  But since there are probably also differences of vocabulary due to different topic, style, etc., it will probably be impossible to find a one-to-one mapping of words that preserves word frequencies exactly.  

If the cause is indeed a spelling reform, hopefully we can recover some of the rules, that can account for, say, 80% of the change.  But a dialect change could also manifest itself as a "quasi-systematic spelling change"...

I agree different topics could confound the analysis which is why I was focusing on Herbal A and Herbal B, unless you also think those are different topics?

Can you please elaborate a bit on your two theories of a systemic spelling reform and dialect?

I understand this is theory-crafting, but I'm not understanding how mechanically you are envisioning these would work. 

If i'm not mistaken, you believe there is just one single author/scribe, is that correct? I have already analyzed the Black Book of Basingwork, i can share that again with you if you missed it, but orthographic shifts like the ones you are describing result in far more disjoint groups in MDS space than voynich. The points there do move, almost entirely parallel with one another. Not what we see with voynich, so this explanation is missing some type of mixing element.

For spelling reform, how do you envision this having occurred? At some point the author decided to take a break, and implement a vast set of comprehensive changes all at once? You don't think there was any stepwise or gradual movement here? Can you explain a bit more about your theory?


I'll see if I can find some text comparisons with the differences you mentioned, and also report back more accurately on the differing dialects I have. If nothing else it will serve as a useful comparison to understand the magnitude of the differences we see across the VM.