[split] Does Voynichese evolve from A to B?

[nablator]

Can you explain a bit more about your theory?

Also why propose such a large spelling reform, that never happened in any manuscript written in a single language (unless it has several parts that were written centuries apart), why should it even be considered as a reasonable possibility?

Same problem, same question about:

He could not possibly notice it, but the word, digraph, and character frequencies of these two texts are completely different, like those of Italian compared to those of German.  So this would be a "large enough" change that could be evidence of gbberish.

This type of maximalist demands look like you absolutely want to win an argument by being maximally unreasonable. The claim "he could not possibly notice it" is misleading. Sure some variations in statistics would be inconspicuous and some statistics could be off by a lot (exactly what we are seeing in the VMS btw) but just taking a glance at a page is enough to see some differences in frequencies when they are glaringly obvious: I don't know any Italian but I can see at a glance that a page is not German and probably Italian.

Dutch is just misspelled German, right?

I'm not even checking if words exist in English (like "maximalist") when they exist in French, I just assume that English is badly spelled French.